PB actually emailed me 100 reasons why he feels my skepticism concerning the Trinity doctrine are correct. But the first 25 are more than sufficient for the purposes of discussion.
Jesus Christ is represented by the sacred writers to be as distinct a
being from God the Father as one man is distinct from another. “It is
written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. I am one
who bear witness of myself, and the Father
that sent me beareth witness of me” (John 8:17
2. Because he not only never said that himself was God, but, on the contrary, spoke of the Father, who sent him, as God, and as the only God. “This is life eternal, that they might know Thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent” (John 17:3). This language our Saviour used in solemn prayer to “his Father and our Father.”
Because he is declared, in unnumbered instances, to be the Son of God
. “And lo, a voice from heaven, saying, this is my beloved Son
, in whom I am well pleased” (Matt. 3:17
). Can a son be coeval
(the same age) and the same
with his father?
Because he is styled the Christ, or the anointed of God
. “God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power” (Acts 10:38
). Is he who anoints the same with him who is anointed?
5. Because he is represented as a Priest. “Consider the ….High-Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus” (Heb. 3:1). The office of a priest is to minister to God. Christ, then, as a priest, cannot be God.
6. Because Christ is Mediator between the “One God,” and “men.” “For there is one God, and oneMediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Tim. 2:5).
Because, as the Saviour
of men, he was sent by the Father
. “And we have seen and do testify thatthe Father sent the Son to be the Saviour
of the world” (1 John 4:14
8. Because he is an Apostle appointed by God. “Consider the Apostle,…Christ Jesus, who was faithful to him that appointed him” (Heb. 3:1 and 2).
Because Christ is represented as our intercessor
with God. “It is Christ that died, yea, rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us
” (Rom. 8:34
10. Because the head of Christ is God. “I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of every woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God” (1 Cor. 11:3).
Because, in the same sense in which we are said to belong to Christ, Christ
is said to belong to God
. “And ye are Christ’s; and Christ is God’s” (1 Cor. 3:23
Because Christ says, “My father is greater than all” (John 10:29
). Is not the father, then greater than the son?
Because he affirms, in another connection, and without the least qualification, “My Father is greater than I
” (John 14:28
Because he virtually denies that he is God
, when he exclaims, “Why callest thou me Good
? There is none good but one
, that is God” (Matt. 19:17
Because our Saviour, after having said, “I and my Father are one
,” gives his disciples distinctly to understand that he did not mean one substance
, equal in power and glory, but one
only in affection
, as clearly appears from the prayer he offers to his Father in their behalf, –“that they all may be one; as thou,
Father, art in me
, and I in thee
, that they also may be one in us
” (John 17:21
Because the Father
is called the God of Christ
as he is the God of Christians
. Jesus saith unto her, “….Go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father and your Father; and to my God
and your God
” (John 20:17
Because an Apostle says of God, in distinction from the “Lord Jesus Christ,” that He is the “only
Potentate,” and that He “only
hath immortality” (1 Tim. 6:15
Because it is the express declaration of the same Apostle, that the Father
is the one God
, and there is none other
. “Though there be that are called Gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) yet to us there is but one God, the Father,
of whom are all things” (1 Cor. 8:5 and 6
19. Because the power which Christ possessed was, as him affirmed, given to him. “All power isgiven unto me” (Matt. 28:18).
Because he positively denies himself to be the author of his miraculous works, but refers them to the Father
, or the holy spirit of God. “The Father
that dwelleth in me, he
doeth the works” (John14:10
). “If I cast out devils by the spirit of God
” (Matt. 12:28
Because he distinctly states, that these works bear witness, not to his own power
, but that theFather had sent him
Because he expressly affirms that the works were done, not in his own name, but in his Father’s name
Because he asserts, that “him hath God the Father sealed
,” i.e. to God the Father
he was indebted for his credentials (John 6:27
Because he declares that he is not the author of his own doctrine. “My doctrine is not mine
, but his that sent me” (John 7:16
25. Because he represents himself as having been instructed by the Father. “As my Father hath taught me, I speak these things” (John 8:28).
Regardless of what your opinion on of the matter is, I think it is important to keep in mind that Christians should not elevate theological understanding to an overly sacred status. It is repentance and acceptance of Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior that are the central issues of our faith, not an ability to see more clearly through the glass than others. Jesus, you may recall, was never overly impressed with intellectual ability.